But again, we don't see that, we see the line tracking the official line exactly .
For the third straight time I will demonstrate you're fundamentally wrong. While the lines are close to the same but for an upward translation, there are actual differences. You'll need to be much better able to read charts, as differences far more subtle than what you see in the chart you've presented can separate life from death in a medical reading.
At first glance, there are similarties, but 'exactly' is a strong word, so look carefully until the many differences leap out at you. Keep looking at that chart as long as necessary. 2006 is a good example...new CPI has a triple hump section, old CPI only has a double hump section. The two primary humps aren't even the same size, either, but in any event you can't track 'exactly' (your word) and have a hump disappear.
If that was a heartbeat, that third beat could be a big difference.
and just added their fudge factored fudge factor to the official inflation
If this were true, the 'old calculation' graph would simply be an up translation of the new calculation graph. Obviously not, because of the triple hump noted earlier, but let's look at another detail.
Note the slope of the inflation graph between 1993-1997 is nearly flat in the new calculation, while the old calculation has a clear positive slope. You'll note slopes elsewhere generally track closely, so this isn't simply a compounding effect.
Again, if that was an adrenaline level, you've got 'stable' to 'rising', and that's huge, too. Good thing we're just talking about just numbers here.
And these are just a couple of the glaring differences you've missed by eyeballing it. You eyeball so poorly, it may be worth your while to get a ruler and see it in a more quantitative way.
The graphs are different in more than just being translations, they do not track exactly (like you said), and there is not simply a fudge factor in the graphs (like you said), and so your chart is debunked as proof, also.
If they were actually doing what you say they are doing, then the inflation should rise more when the changes cover a rising bubble price, and should fall more when the changes cover a fall in prices. So in 1983, house prices were rising but rent prices were not, and they switched from calculating house prices to calculating rent prices. But in 1990, house prices were falling and rent was not - but the government was still calculating rent prices.
Inflation is an average of many things...one thing going down does not, in any way, preclude something else from going up.
Remember, when I said and showed the BLS numbers are low, I didn't just say "medical costs are above their number", I listed a whole range of things above their numbers, and we had to scramble to even find one thing that was, using a twisted and inappropriate measurement, below the numbers provided by the BLS.
Back to the point: one thing being high, or low, doesn't prove a mean is wrong. You've identified, sort of, one thing that may be low.
You're claiming fraud. Make the whole calculation, as pointing at one thing that might in some cases make some aspect of some number being in some sense smaller doesn't really prove much.
Shadowstats are obviously lying
Now, you've eyeballed things before on Shadowstats, and gotten it wrong every time. So, once again, I ask you: prove it.
your own credibility as a person who can read numbers and charts.
You've been demonstrably wrong regarding Shadowstats 100% of the time now, so I think it's your credibility that's been damaged here.
Look, you're claiming fraud, and just because you're been wrong every time before doesn't mean you're wrong now. Get out the formulas, do the calculations, and SHOW it.
PROVE. Calculate. Demonstrate.
When I type in "Shadowstats is wrong" in google, there are 14 hits (one of them is TGD). Only the first one says much, mostly defending BLS. By comparison, "Einstein is wrong" gets 15,700 hits. (Yes, Einstein is more famous than Shadowstats, but even if you look at things proportionally, it's still off by a factor of two in favor of Shadowstats).
Frank, you will be FAMOUS for proving your claim here. Please, please, do so. Why are you turning down this opportunity?
Until you prove it, all we have here is your eyeballing it and saying it must be wrong...and considering how well that's worked out for you in this thread so far, that has to be taken with a grain of salt.
You're right, it's quite possible they have to use an approximation somewhere for data collection that no longer exists in the identical form...but
prove. Not eyeball,
prove. Not shout,
prove.
I did read a secondhand thing in the comments section of someone saying that Williams said that's all he's doing is adding a fudge factor. Can you back up your claim by getting Williams' quote?
It turns out I was wrong about one thing, they had no choice but to change the formula in 1990 because of lack of data set (but, still, they're using the SAME formula that the government used in 1990, back-adjusting from government numbers, again demonstrating that new government formulas lower the reported rate of inflation).
Otherwise, I guess I'm just a bad person to still use the same quadratic formula now that I used in 1982. I also use the same Pythagorean theorem that I used in 1982...am I going to hell for this?
Look, I'm not saying the quadratic formula is 'right' or 'wrong'. I'm not saying Shadowstats is 'right' or 'wrong'...the words really don't apply.
Further explanation is given here (don't just look at the charts and eyeball it, read the words, too):
http://www.shadowstats.com/article/aa871
What's realy odd is the BLS feeling there's a need to particularly debunk Shadowstats...if they're so right, why are they responding to a flyspeck website run by one guy? Please, consider how bizarre that is to respond to a 'kook'. The comments section alone trashed the BLS treatise well enough:
http://www.econbrowser.com/archives/200 ... s_deb.html
Additionally, the BSL could always, just, you know, print the numbers from the old calculation right next to the new calculation...I mean, the BLS is by definition quite capable of doing that. That's a trivial debunking that would cause Shadowstats to vanish in a puff of logic...but, they don't. Instead, they write treatise of words about how Shadowstats isn't right, with their main premise being repetition makes something true.
Finally, it's also worth noting that the John Williams did elect to respond to the entire government department that decided to address him:
http://www.shadowstats.com/article/special-comment
Look, the bottom line is BLS is subject to political manipulation, and the the rates they report now are not the same thing (or the same numbers) as the rates of 20 years ago, and they have good reason for changing the definitions. The end result of those changes is 'inflation' is no longer 'inflation', and this can create confusion.
As a digression, it's not just 'inflation' that gets redefined for political ends:
http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=Ulu3SCAmeBA
Back to inflation, most people won't be able to understand this video, but it does give some nice concrete examples of what's going on:
http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=U-tI-Wv1wko
Again, playing devil's advocate, here's the best I can do for an alternate comparison between old and new cpi:
http://www.mrswing.com/articles/The_New ... d_CPI.html
Unfortunately, this is pretty retarded, as it shows the calculations ultimately come out identical either way. If they come out identical either way, why bother? And how is that 'better, more precise' if it's the same either way? Funny stuff, and about the best we have as a counter-argument to just using the old formulas.